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12.01.10 / EMC / Author: admin / Comments: (0)

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Incremental SAN Copy jobs copy on first write (COFW) operations occur at 64 KB chunks.
At which block size do incremental SAN Copy data transfers occur?
A.64KB
B.2KB
C.8KB
D.4KB
Answer: B

What is true of the NQM Enabler?
A. Installation and removal do not require rebooting.
B. Installation and removal require SPs to be rebooted.
C. Installation requires SPs to be rebooted.
D. Removal requires SPs to be rebooted.
Answer: A

A storage administrator wants to use a point-in-time copy of a production LUN for testing. The
administrator may want to copy the content of the point-in-time copy to the production LUN when testing
is complete. One of the administrator’s goals is minimal performance impact on the production LUN.
Which solution should the administrator use?
A. Use a snapshot and rollback as needed
B. Use a host-based copy utility to copy the data
C. Use a clone and reverse synchronize as needed
D. Use Incremental SAN Copy and roll back as needed
Answer: C

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28.07.09 / EMC / Author: admin / Comments: (0)

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16.06.09 / EMC / Author: admin / Comments: (0)
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the latest e20-361 exam demo 2

09.06.09 / EMC / Author: admin / Comments: (0)
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3. When you configure a CIFS Server on a Virtual Data Mover, which dynamic configuration information is
only saved to the Virtual Data Mover?
A. Home directory information
B. NFS file system information
C. Usermapper information
D. Virus checker information
Answer: A
4. What is stored in a Virtual Data Mover’s root file system?
A. CIFS security tokens
B. Home directory information
C. NAS root directory
D. Usermapper configuration
Answer: B
5. What important function does Kerberos provide in both Active Directory and NFS v4?
A. Access tokens to hold a user’s SID
B. Authentication Service
C. Encryption of passwords sent to domain controllers
D. Security encryption used by authentication protocols
Answer: B

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08.06.09 / EMC / Author: admin / Comments: (0)
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1. A customer’s Celerra administrator wants to present several CIFS shares through one file server. The
shares are stored on many different physical machines.
What can be used with the Celerra to achieve this goal?
A. Celerra Data Migration Service
B. Distributed File System
C. Nested Mount File System
D. Virtual Data Mover
Answer: B
2. The file system fs01 must be mounted and exported on /mp1 as a CIFS share so only fs01 can be seen
by users. To do this, a system administrator will need to
 mount fs01 to /mp1/fs01
 export /mp1/fs01 as a CIFS share
What other step will the system administrator need to take to present this share so users only see fs01?
A. create the directory /mp1/fs01 from a Windows host
B. move .etc and lost+found to another directory.
C. mark .etc and lost+found as hidden.
D. unmount fs01 from /mp1
Answer: A

the latest e20-520 exam demo 2

05.06.09 / EMC / Author: admin / Comments: (0)
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4. Which feature does the PowerPath CLI provide?
A. Allows a host to access a storage group
B. Masks any of the LUNs on the CLARiiON to the host
C. Sets I/O rate limits on a per-path basis
D. Sets the load-balancing policy for a LUN
Answer: B
5. NQM has been enabled. What is done with LUNs that are NOT explicitly part of an I/O class?
A. Automatically placed in a background class
B. I/Os are averaged across defined I/O classes
C. LUNs are ignored by NQM
D. Placed in the Unused LUNs class
Answer: B

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the latest e20-520 exam demo

04.06.09 / EMC / Author: admin / Comments: (0)
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1. What is a supported host for a SnapView snapshot to be mounted?
A. On a secondary host multiple times
B. On a secondary host running a different O/S
C. On a secondary host running the same O/S
D. On the production host running Windows
Answer: B
2. A MirrorView/A mirror has been configured with the “End of Last Update” value set to 15. An update
cycle starts at 3:10 P.M. (15:10) and finishes at 3:30 P.M. (15:30).
When does the next cycle start?
A. 3:30 P.M. (15:30)
B. 3:35 P.M. (15:35)
C. 3:40 P.M. (15:40)
D. 3:45 P.M. (15:45)
Answer: C
3. Which CLARiiON feature allows for the creation of storage groups and the attachment of hosts?
A. Access Logix
B. HBA Connectivity
C. Navisphere Agent
D. SP Enablers
Answer: C

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the latest e20-501 demo 2

03.06.09 / EMC / Author: admin / Comments: (0)
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4. Which protocol is used to connect the RecoverPoint Appliance and the storage array?
A. FCOE
B. Fibre
C. IP
D. iSCSI
Answer: B
5. Which Replication Manager user role has the rights to restore replicas?
A. Database Administrator
B. Operator
C. Power Administrator
D. Power User
Answer: A
6. How does SAN Copy, running on a CLARiiON system, identify other storage systems?
A. Domain ID
B. FCID
C. MAC address
D. World Wide Names
Answer: D

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02.06.09 / EMC / Author: admin / Comments: (0)
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1. Which EMC backup and recovery solution features out-of-the box integration with Microsoft Volume
Shadow Copy Service (VSS)?
A. Avamar
B. DiskXtender
C. NetWorker
D. RepliStor
Answer: D
2. Which EMC backup and recovery solution replicates individual open and closed files, directories, and
shares?
A. Avamar
B. DiskXtender
C. EMC Legato
D. RepliStor
Answer: D
3. Which RecoverPoint feature provides local synchronous replication between LUNs that reside in one or
more arrays at the same site?
A. CDP
B. CRR
C. RPA
D. RPSD
Answer: A

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26.12.08 / EMC / Author: admin / Comments: (0)
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